"My Lord and My God"

Why Did Thomas Call Jesus Both Lord and God?

(John 20:19-29)


Then the same day at evening, being the first day of the week, when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled for fear of the Jews, came Jesus and stood in the midst, and saith unto them, Peace be unto you.  And when he had so said, he shewed unto them his hands and his side. Then were the disciples glad, when they saw the Lord.  Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you.  And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost:  Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.  But Thomas, one of the twelve, called Didymus, was not with them when Jesus came.  The other disciples therefore said unto him, We have seen the Lord. But he said unto them, Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe.  And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them: then came Jesus, the doors being shut, and stood in the midst, and said, Peace be unto you.  Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.  And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.  Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.  And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:  But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.


The Only Reason!


Though there exists hundreds of (false) reasons as to why Thomas declared Jesus as his Lord and his God", there only exists one that is scriptural.  If you are used to hearing arguments such as "well what this verse really means in the Greek is such and such" or "what this writer really meant was such and such", we must first ask are you following God's word or are you following man made doctrines?  How shall God hold us accountable if we (supposedly) don't have a valid law?  Will God separate the wheat and the tares unjustly? The answer is No.  There exists a valid English translation of the bible and that is the (original) King James bible.  If you have a King James bible in John 1:1 it reads, "In the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the word was God."  It is just that simple, the word is God!  And the word became flesh and goes by the name of Jesus Christ!  Therefore Jesus is God!  But some might argue, do you not see that there exists two in this verse, "the word" and "God."  And so how can they both be God if there is only one God? (So we ask) Did Jesus say my Father is God and I am "a" God?  No. He said, "I and My Father are one."  Now this is in perfect harmony with John 1:1, for (yes we agree) there exists two, but the two are one!  Just as Jesus said, "I am in the Father and the Father is in me"(John 14:11) and "He that has seen me has seen the Father" (John 14:9).  Furthermore if we say Jesus is "a" God, then we have two Gods? But then one might argue that Jesus is "a" God, but not the Almighty God.  But even if this were true, (which it is not), would there not still exist two Gods?  And so when we ask what is unique about the Almighty, they reply that the almighty was not created and that he is the source of all that was created.  But considering we have that statement in regards to the "word", that all things were made by him and without him was not anything made that was made" we must conclude that the word is eternal (from everlasting to everlasting) and uncreated, for without him was not anything made that was made.